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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 27.06.2025 11:05

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Beautiful European women were killed by inquisition but Russia was not Catholic. Is this the reason for a drastic difference explaining why Russian women are the prettiest?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

How can the democrats say Mr. Trump is bad when he is already fixing this country again and he's not even president yet?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Can you write a poem or short story based on the first image that shows up on Pinterest?

You'll usually find your answer there.